Why does the STK500 have two PDIP slots for each size?

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alank2
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Posted by alank2: Sat. Jul 25, 2009 - 03:27 AM
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Hi,

At first I thought perhaps it would allow two AVR's to be connected at the same time, but I guess not. Why have two 40 pin sockets? Two 28 pin sockets? Two 20 pin sockets, two 8 pin sockets... What is the reason for this?

Thanks,

Alan

Autoprogrammer:

https://www.avrfreaks.net/forum/wts-standalone-pdiisp-auto-programmers

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AVR Microcontrollers, megaAVR and tinyAVR
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tekmek
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Posted by tekmek: Sat. Jul 25, 2009 - 05:10 AM
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because not every AVR have their pins at the same place... how else would you be able to program different chips??????

There are 10 types of people
- those who knows binary
- those who don't

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Bronze Markdavid.prentice
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Posted by david.prentice: Sat. Jul 25, 2009 - 06:14 AM
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The 8515 socket is the same as a standard 8051 chip. I think that Atmel deliberately made these chips pin-compatible so as to steal some market share from the dominant mcs51 family. (the only difference is !RESET for an AVR and RESET for mcs51)

I am not sure about the 28 pin. But I think a 2313 is pin-compatible with a AT89C4051.

Otherwise it seems to be fairly crazy to muddle up pins over the AVR family. I think that PICs are more consistent in their pin layout.

David.

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meslomp
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Posted by meslomp: Sat. Jul 25, 2009 - 06:51 AM
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As far as I have investigated the difference is between chips that only have a digital interface and chip sthat have an A/d converter.

for new chips there only is the second, but in the past there where the 8515 and 8535 one had analog and one did not.

That is why one slot has an A in the name and the other a D.

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